Coupon amount =8.4%/2 * 1000 =$42
Total no of coupon payments = 24*2 = 48
a) Price P = 42/(1+0) + 42/(1+0)^2 + ... + 42/(1+0)^48 + 1000/(1+0)^48
=(42+42+...+42)+ 1000
= 2016 + 1000 = $3016
b) Let the six monthly YTM be y
1000 = 42/(1+y) + 42/(1+y)^2 + ... + 42/(1+y)^48 + 1000/(1+y)^48
As the Bond price =$1000 = par value
Six monthly YTM = six montly Coupon rate = 4.2%
So, YTM = 4.2% *2 = 8.4%
c) Six monthly YTM =10%/2 = 0.05
Price P = 42/(1+0.05) + 42/(1+0.05)^2 + ... + 42/(1+0.05)^48 + 1000/(1+0.05)^48
= 42* PVA(5%, 48) + 1000 *PV(5%,48)
= 42/0.05* (1-1/1.05^48) + 1000 * 1/1.05^48
=$855.38
d) Let the six monthly YTM be y
598.139 = 42/(1+y) + 42/(1+y)^2 + ... + 42/(1+y)^48 + 1000/(1+y)^48
Using hit and trial method
Putting y = 0.1 makes Right hand side of above equation = 425.98
Putting y = 0.08 makes Right hand side of above equation = 536.81
Putting y = 0.075 makes Right hand side of above equation = 573.67
Putting y = 0.07 makes Right hand side of above equation = 615.55
So, y lies between 0.07 and 0.075
Putting y = 0.072 makes Right hand side of above equation = 598.139
So, YTM = six monthly YTM * 2 = 0.072*2 = 14.4%
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