Modified duration is calculated below:
Period | Payment time | CF | Discount factor | PV | Weight | Weight x payment time |
1 | 0.50 | 25 | 1/(1+0.04/2)^1=0.9804 | 25x0.9804=24.51 | 24.51/1028.007=0.024 | 0.012 |
2 | 1.00 | 25 | 1/(1+0.04/2)^2=0.9612 | 25x0.9612=24.029 | 24.029/1028.007=0.023 | 0.023 |
3 | 1.50 | 25 | 1/(1+0.04/2)^3=0.9423 | 25x0.9423=23.558 | 23.558/1028.007=0.023 | 0.034 |
4 | 2.00 | 25 | 1/(1+0.04/2)^4=0.9238 | 25x0.9238=23.096 | 23.096/1028.007=0.022 | 0.045 |
5 | 2.50 | 25 | 1/(1+0.04/2)^5=0.9057 | 25x0.9057=22.643 | 22.643/1028.007=0.022 | 0.055 |
6 | 3.00 | 1025 | 1/(1+0.04/2)^6=0.888 | 1025x0.888=910.171 | 910.171/1028.007=0.885 | 2.656 |
Sum of all PV = 1028.007 | Macaulay duration = sum of weighted payments | 2.826 | ||||
Modified duration = Macaulay's duration/(1+YTM/n) | 2.826/(1+0.04/2) = 2.770 |
So the modified duration is 2.77 and the correct option is option 4
q6) First of all when interest rate rises, the price of the bond falls so the two options which say we will get a gain can be eliminated
Next the duration indicates the change in the portfolio value to a 100 bps or 1% change in the interest rate, here we are given the change in interest rate as 50bps so we need to divide the duration percents by 2
So the duration bond value calculation is as follows:
Bond | Value | Duration | 1% Change |
A | 2000000 | 0.0814 | -0.0814 x 2000000 = -162800 |
B | 2250000 | 0.0423 | -0.0423 x 2250000 = -95175 |
Total change | -162800-95175 = -257975 | ||
Change for 50BPS | -257975/4 = - 64493.75 |
So the correct option is 4th one
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