With reference to the Keynesian theory and cross graph, if the real GDP were initially $900, what would tend to happen to consumption expenditure? How would it change and why would it change? Why would it stop changing?
As it has been given that with reference to the Keynesian theory and cross graph, if the real GDP were initially $900, then it is greater than the full employment level, so when actual real GDP will be greater than the full employment level of real GDP $500, then there will be inflationary gap of $400.
Since economy is not in equilibrium, therefore economy moves towards equilibrium. Hence consumption will decrease because consumption is the part of the aggregate expenditure (AE). The consumption will stop changing when
Y=AE
Y=C+I+G+NX
At Y=AE, equilibrium will be restored. Hence consumption will stop at equilibrium level of output (Y) $500.
With reference to the Keynesian theory and cross graph, if the real GDP were initially $900,...
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