Question

D. Absence of abdominal pain Q30. A 60-year-old client has Prinz metal's angina (variant angina). To reduce the risk of coronary artery spasms, which type of medication is the physician most likely to prescribe? entative bu tthe spons A. propranolol B. digoxin C. Diltiazem give and m D. Dobutamine Q31. A client is receiving spironolactone to treat hypertension. Which instruction should the nurse provide? ith t A. "Eat food high in potassium" B. "Take daily potassium supplements" C. "Discontinue sodium restrictions" D. "Avoid salt substitute" Q32. A 56-year-old client with a new onset of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin to help prevent thromboembolic formation. The warfarin dosage will reach therapeutic levels when the INR falls within which range? A. 1 to 2 B. 1.5 to 2.5 C. 2 to 3 D. 2.5 to 3.5 Q33. A 55-year-old is being treated for heart failure is administered intravenous bumetanide. Which outcome indicates the medication has achieved the expected effect? A. There has been an increase in urine out put B. Cough becomes productive of frothy pink sputum c. The abdomen has enlarged D. The client complains of diarrhea

Answer 1

30. Answer ; C) Diltiazem
Reason ; Here the patient is experiencing the risk of coronary artery spasm, the drugs from the Option (c) will helps
to reduce and prevent this risk.

31. Answer ; A) Eat food high in potassium
Reason ; while taking this kind of drugs, the individual will have the adverse effect of getting decrease in the potassium
amount, so in order to compensate this, the given option would be the answer.

32. Answer ; C) 2 to 3
Reason ; This value is considered as the expected therapeutic level, when the client receive this given medication.

33. Answer ; A) There has been an increase in urine output
Reason ; This outcome is the expected effect of the prescribed drugs.

34. Answer ; B) Diarrhea

36. Answer ; D) Ventricular rate decreased from 158/min to 88/min

37. Answer ; A) This medication should only be taken with water.