Hello,
Put the Figures in excel in the formula listed below
NPV = Pv of inflow - Outflow
MIRR = (values, finance_ rate, reinvest_ rate)
At year 2 cash flow will be "0" because at end the of 2 year
additional 10 million in invested in the project
(all figures in millions)
WACC - 8%
Year | Cashflow | Pv of Cashflow |
0 | -40 | -40 |
1 | 8 | $7.41 |
2 | 0 | $0.00 |
3 | 16 | $12.70 |
4 | 19 | $13.97 |
5 | 18 | $12.25 |
NPV | $6.32 | |
MIRR | 11% |
Future value of return of cashflow for the end of 5 year
Year | Cashflow | FV of return |
0 | -40 | |
1 | 8 | $10.88 |
2 | 0 | $0.00 |
3 | 16 | $18.66 |
4 | 19 | $20.52 |
5 | 18 | $18.00 |
I hope this clear your doubt.
Feel free to comment if you still have any query or need something else. I'll help asap.
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