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3) (20 pts.) A company bought a machine for $60,000. It was expected to last 5 years and has no salvage value. At the end of
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Answer #1

a)

Straight line

First Cost of machine=FC=$60000

Salvage value=S=0

Useful life=n=5

Depreciation per year=D=(FC-S)/n=(60000-0)/5=$12000

Book Value after 4th year=FC-4*D=60000-4*12000=$12000

So, Loss to company=Book Value at the end of year 4=$12000

b)

SOYD

Sum of year digits=1+2+3+4+5=15

Total depreciation in 4 years=[(5/15)+(4/15)+(3/15)+(2/15)]*(FC-S)=(14/15)*(60000-0)=$56000

Book Value after 4th year=FC-Total Depreciation=60000-56000=$4000

So, Loss to company=Book Value at the end of year 4=$4000

c)

MACRS in 5-year class is given by

Year Depreciation
1 20%
2 32%
3 19.20%
4 11.52%
5 11.52%
6 5.76%

Total Depreciation in 4 years=20%+32%+19.20%+11.52%=82.72%

Book value at the end of year 4=FC*(1-Total Depreciation)=60000*(1-82.72%)=$10368

So, Loss to company=Book Value at the end of year 4=$10368

d)

Double declining balance

In this case Depreciation rate=200%/5=40%

Book Value after 4th year=FC(1-40%)^4=60000*(1-40%)^4=$7776

So, Loss to company=Book Value at the end of year 4=$7776

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