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Three frictionless conducting rails are fixed on an incline plane as shown. The top piece has a resistance R. A free conducti

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Answer #1

a) from Faraday's law we know the emf induced in loop is given by

\varepsilon =-\frac{d\phi}{dt}.................(1)

Let's assume the direction of induced current in the loop is anticlockwise if we look from above the plane then unit normal vector of the plane \hat n will be perpendicularly above the inclined plane as shown in figure

न R C. is C व 9 1

U } 기 , N ng on 지 눈

Here we can see. \hat n=\sin\theta \hat i+\cos\theta\hat j

Therefore magnetic flux passes through the loop at its position x' is

\phi=\vec B.\hat n S

With S=x' l =area of loop abcd

Put values of B and n and S we get

\phi=x'lB(cos\alpha\ \sin\theta+\cos\beta\cos\theta)..........(2)

Put value of Φ in equation (1) we get

\varepsilon =-lB(cos\alpha\ \sin\theta+\cos\beta\cos\theta)\frac{dx'}{dt}.....................(3)

Now from figure we can see net force acting on rod along x' direction is

-m\frac{d^2x'}{dt^2}=(F\cos\theta-mg\sin\theta).....................(4)here negative sign is taken because with time distance x' reduces. Solve equation (4) we get (we assume that the rod started moving from rest)

\frac{dx'}{dt}=-\frac{t}{m}(F\cos\theta-mg\sin\theta).....................(5)

Put this value in equation (3) we get

\varepsilon =\frac{lBt}{m}(cos\alpha\ \sin\theta+\cos\beta\cos\theta)(F\cos\theta-mg\sin\theta).....................(6)

This is the expression for induced e.m.f. in the loop.

Since we get the value of induced e.m.f. positive therefore direction of induced current will be along the direction of loop that we have used i.e. anticlockwise.

if we go for physical meaning of the direction of induced current: as we can see net flux passing through the loop abcd has been reducing with time. Therefore direction of magnetic field generated due to induced current must directed along the primary magnetic field and it possible only if induced current is directed in anticlockwise direction.

Therefore in rod direction of induced current is along negative z-axis.

its value will be

I_m=\frac{\varepsilon}{R} =\frac{lBt}{Rm}(cos\alpha\ \sin\theta+\cos\beta\cos\theta)(F\cos\theta-mg\sin\theta).....................(7)

Or in vector form

I_{Ind}=-I_m\hat k. It is on free rod.

b) therefore magnetic force acting on this free rod is

\vec F_m=\vec B\times \vec I_{Ind}=-BI_m(\cos\alpha\hat i+\cos\beta\hat j+\cos\gamma\hat k)\times\hat k

Or

\vec F_m=-BI_m(\cos\beta\hat i-\cos\alpha\hat j).......(8)

C) Rod's speed will remain constant only if net force acting on it is zero.

Therefore net force acting on the rod is

\vec N+\vec F_m+\vec F+m\vec g=0

Put all the values we get

N_x\hat i+N_y\hat j+N_z\hat k- BI_m(\cos\beta\hat i-\cos\alpha\hat j)- F\hat i-mg\hat j=0

Separate each component and solve it we get

\\ N_x=BI_m\cos\beta+F\\ \\N_y=mg-BI_m\cos\alpha\\ \\N_z=0

This is the result for which the rod will move with constant speed.

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