with work shown and concepts
and formulas explained, please!
Answer- 1/16
Explanation- As mentioned, the Huntington's disease is dominant as well as autosomal. This means that the diseased person has genotype - HH or Hh. H represents Huntington's allele.
So, if female and male both are heterozygotes, there genotypes will be-
Hh × Hh (Parents)
HH, Hh, Hh, hh (Children)
So, HH, Hh, Hh will be diseased but hh being recessive will be normal. So, probability comes to be 1/4. Let's suppose this is for child aged 5 yrs.
Now, same will be for child aged 7 yrs that is equal to 1/4.
To know the probability of neither of them having the disease, the multiplication rule is used-
1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16.
Hence, 1/16 is the probability.
with work shown and concepts and formulas explained, please! Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant condition...
Huntington Chorea is a serious genetic disorder caused by a rare dominant allele (H) at an autosomal locus on chromosome 4. Individuals bearing an H allele produce a damaging protein that accumulates within the brain, leading to progressive loss of motor control and often dementia. the disease often manifests itself later in life, and usually victims die within 15 years of diagnosis. In some rural Michigan populations, the frequency of people diagnosed with the disorder is unusually high, about 0.05%....
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What is the mode of inheritance for hypercholesterolemia?
a.
Autosomal dominant
b.
Autosomal recessive
c.
X-linked dominant
d.
X-linked recessive
e.
More than one of the above are possible
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What is the mode of inheritance for Hunter's syndrome?
a.
Autosomal dominant
b.
Autosomal recessive
c.
X-linked dominant
d.
X-linked recessive
e.
More than one of the above are possible.
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