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Please answer a,b and c.

Now, consider a 1-d infinite square well of width a, between x = 0 and a, such that V(x) = 0 for 0<x<a and too elsewhere. A p

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Answer #1

The Particle in an infinite well wave fonction of particle in an in of width a is to = /a sin n . o noh? and energy eigenvalu

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Please answer a,b and c. Now, consider a 1-d infinite square well of width a, between...
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