Question

Define a sequence {m} _, such that VnEN, an+1 = bn + an. Give a simple formula for {bm} m=0 and conclude that Vn e Nt, an = bao = 0, In € N+, an = In(n!) – (n + ) Inn+n.

Once I get bm, I want to use induction to conclude that an = b0+b1+...+bn-1.

How would this be done?

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Answer #1

ana borby to.. + bari i auto pothit... + bariton ... anti-an = bn. is bm» flan (604) !) - (*+1 +2) lun mar tnti] - [lu 61 - (

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