Question

Pharamacolgy question, I need help with 10 B please

10. All antihistamines are inverse agonists at H1 histamine receptors. After taking Loratidine (Claritin) for several weeks, Joe notices that it is no longer effective. a. Propose at least two possible explanations (other than pharmacokinetics have changed) for why Loratidine has become less effective at treating Joe's symptoms (other than the amount of allergens in the environment have increased). I can think of 4. Joe switches to Cetirizine (Zyrtec). It is much more effective. b. propose at least two mechanisms by which Zyrtec can be more effective than Claritin under these conditions. Extra credit for coming up with more than 2. At work the next week, Joe realizes he forgot to take his Zyrtec that morning and he has a big presentation. His colleague gives him a Claritin. Amazingly, Joe finds it works just fine. Does this empirical finding of Joe's inform which of the two mechanisms you proposed in (b) are responsible for why switching to Zyrtec improved Joe's symptoms?

Answer 1

1.zyrtec has quicker onset of action. 2. Through clinical trials it is proven that zyrtec is more effective than claritin in controlling allergies

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