Question

The following four mutually exclusive alternatives have no salvage value after 10 years. Consider a MARR of 16%. a. Determine

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Answer #1

Solution :-

Present Value of Benefits = Annual Benefits * PVAF ( 16% , 10 )

Alt A = $1,717.52 * 4.833 = $8299.86

Alt B = $1,446.35 * 4.833 = $6,990.54

Alt C = $1,195.51 * 4.833 = $5,778.17

Alt D = $1,821.28 * 4.833 = $8,802.66

Benefit cost Ratio = Present Value of Benefits / Initial Cost

Alt A = $8,299.86 / $8,000 = 1.037 times

Alt B = $6,990.54 / $6,500 = 1.075 times

Alt C = $5,778.17 / $6,000 = 0.963 times

Alt D = $8,802.66 / $9,500 = 0.927 times

As the Benefit Cost Ratio of Alternative C and D is less than 1 So Don't accept the Project

Now Benefit Cost Ratio is higher the Better and Acceptable if greater than Equal to 1

So Choose Alternative B

Now on the Basis of Incremental Analysis , Compare A and B

Incremental B/C Ratio = ( $8,299.86 - $6,990.54 ) / ( $8,000 - $6,500 ) =

= $1,309.32 / $1,500  

= 0.873

As incremental Benefit Cost Ratio is Less than 1

So Choose Alternative B

(b)

Payback Period = Initial Investment / Annual Benefit

Alt A = $8,000 / $1,717.25 = 4.66 Years

Alt B = $6,500 / $1,446.35 = 4.49 Years

Alt C = $6,000 / $1,195.51 = 5.02 Years

Alt D = $9,500 / $1,821.28 = 5.22 Years

As the Payback Period of Alternative B is lower so Choose Alternative B

As Payback Period is lower the Better

If there is any doubt please ask in comments

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