there is a 4.8 percent coupon bond with six years to maturity and a current price of $1,048.30. What is the dollar value of an 01 for the bond? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 3 decimal places. Omit the "$" sign in your response.) Dollar value $
K = N |
Bond Price =∑ [( Coupon)/(1 + YTM)^k] + Par value/(1 + YTM)^N |
k=1 |
K =6 |
1048.3 =∑ [(4.8*1000/100)/(1 + YTM/100)^k] + 1000/(1 + YTM/100)^6 |
k=1 |
YTM% = 3.88 |
Period | Cash Flow | Discounting factor | PV Cash Flow | Duration Calc |
0 | ($1,048.30) | =(1+YTM/number of coupon payments in the year)^period | =cashflow/discounting factor | =PV cashflow*period |
1 | 48.00 | 1.04 | 46.21 | 46.21 |
2 | 48.00 | 1.08 | 44.48 | 88.96 |
3 | 48.00 | 1.12 | 42.82 | 128.46 |
4 | 48.00 | 1.16 | 41.22 | 164.88 |
5 | 48.00 | 1.21 | 39.68 | 198.40 |
6 | 1,048.00 | 1.26 | 834.01 | 5,004.04 |
Total | 5,630.96 |
Macaulay duration =(∑ Duration calc)/(bond price*number of coupon per year) |
=5630.96/(1048.3*1) |
=5.371513 |
Modified duration = Macaulay duration/(1+YTM) |
=5.37/(1+0.0388) |
=5.170883 |
dollar value = -modified duration*current price*1 percent change in YTM |
Dollar value = -5.17*1048.3*0.01 |
Dollar value = -54.2 |
DV01 = Dollar value*0.01 |
=-54.19711*0.01 |
-0.5419711 |
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