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If the means of two groups are same, then the underlying distributions of the two groups...

If the means of two groups are same, then the underlying distributions of the two groups must also be the same.

True or False

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Answer #1

No it is not necessary. There can be two groups that have exactly same mean but underlying distribution of both group are different. For example : consider two groups: height of a sample of males and height of sample of female.

It may possible that both groups have mean height 5' 6" but distribution of height of male is quite different from the distribution of height of female.

Hence, it is false.

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