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F1 If, in the Fibonacci search algorithm. when ,f(p) /(q) we let p = b-- (instead of b-2c), prove that p = q Likewise, if whe
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Answer #1

The expressions of p and q are developed for this version of the algorithm and it will be seen that the same value is obtained for p and q.

When f(p)\leq f(q), we let p=b-\frac{F_{1}}{F_{2}}(b-a) and knowing that F_{1}=1 and F_{2}=2 are numbers from the Fibonacci series, you have:

p=b-\frac{F_{1}}{F_{2}}(b-a)=b-\frac{1}{2}(b-a)=b-\frac{b}{2}+\frac{a}{2}=\frac{b}{2}+\frac{a}{2}=\frac{b+a}{2}\ (1)

q=a+\frac{F_{1}}{F_{2}}(b-a)=a+\frac{1}{2}(b-a)=a+\frac{b}{2}-\frac{a}{2}=\frac{a}{2}+\frac{b}{2}=\frac{a+b}{2}=\frac{b+a}{2}\ (2)

Then, of (1) and (2), it is concluded that  p=q.

When f(p)> f(q), we let q=a+\frac{F_{1}}{F_{2}}(b-a) and knowing that F_{1}=1 and F_{2}=2 are numbers from the Fibonacci series, you have:

q=a+\frac{F_{1}}{F_{2}}(b-a)=a+\frac{1}{2}(b-a)=a+\frac{b}{2}-\frac{a}{2}=\frac{a}{2}+\frac{b}{2}=\frac{a+b}{2}=\frac{b+a}{2}\ (3)p=b-\frac{F_{1}}{F_{2}}(b-a)=b-\frac{1}{2}(b-a)=b-\frac{b}{2}+\frac{a}{2}=\frac{b}{2}+\frac{a}{2}=\frac{b+a}{2}\ (4)

Then, of (3) and (4), it is concluded that  p=q.

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