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Let E be a closed bounded subset of E and r be any function mapping E to (0,00). Then there exists finitely many pints yi E

This is a tough **Real Analysis** problem, please do it without Heine Borel's theorem & provide as much details as possible

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Given, let E be a closed bounded Subset be any function mapping E to{ors) and chon m Nouw, Then , En-R So, e is CoverCd by th

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This is a tough **Real Analysis** problem, please do it without Heine Borel's theorem & provide as much details as possible Let E be a closed bounded subset of E" and r be any function...
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