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Can any one explain the claim for me please? I cannot see why thats true as p is greater than 1, surely we will have extra terms.

To me its like it is calming (a+b)^2 <= a^2 + b^2

Any help will be much appreciated.

Let Take f, g E B: then for any λ E (0, 1) we have CL

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Answer #1

just have to use triangle Enequautǐ Ance s tben usin 4-t) >0 te (o, l) that t>од so se get 0. ouo since

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Can any one explain the claim for me please? I cannot see why thats true as p is greater than 1, surely we will have extra terms. To me its like it is calming (a+b)^2 <= a^2 + b^2 Any help will be...
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