Please show me the whole numbers also before rounding them so I can see thank you!
a.I.Sunk cost and does not represent incremental cash flow and should not be included
b.Initial Investment Outlay = Base Price + Modification cost + Increase in Working Capital
= 197,000+9,000+4,000
= $210,000
b.Annual Cash Flows:
Year 1 |
2 |
3 |
|
Savings in Cost |
34,000 |
34,000 |
34,000 |
Less: Depreciation |
67,980 |
92,700 |
30,900 |
Net Savings |
-33,980 |
-58,700 |
3,100 |
Less: Tax @35% |
-11,893 |
-20,545 |
1,085 |
Income after Tax |
-22,087 |
-38,155 |
2,015 |
Add: Depreciation |
67,980 |
92,700 |
30,900 |
Cash Flow |
45,893 |
54,545 |
32,915 |
Add: After tax salvage value |
81,877 |
||
Recovery of Working capital |
4,000 |
||
Cash Flow |
45,893 |
54,545 |
118,792 |
Note: Written down value of machine = 206,000*7% = $14,420
Sale Price = $118,200
Gain on Sale = $103,780
Tax on Gain = $36,323
After tax salvage value = 118,200 – 36,323 = $81,877
d.NPV = Present value of cash inflows – present value of cash outflows
= 45,893*PVF(14%, 1 year) + 54,545*PVF(14%, 2 years) + 118,792*PVF(14%, 3 years) – 210,000
= 45,893*0.877 + 54,545*0.769 + 118,792*0.675 - 210,000
= -$47,622.134
No, should not be purchased (since NPV is negative)
Please show me the whole numbers also before rounding them so I can see thank you!...
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