Previous experimentation with a drug product developed for the relief of depression was conducted with normal adults with no signs of depression. We will assume a large data bank is available from studies conducted with normals and, for all practical purposes, the data bank can represent the population of responses for normals. Each of the adults participating in one of these studies was asked to rate the drug as ineffective, mildly effective, or effective. The percentages of respondents in these categories were 60%, 30%, and 10%, respectively. In a new study of depressed adults, a random sample of 85 adults responded as follows:
Ineffective: 30
Mildly effective: 35
Effective: 20
Is there evidence to indicate a different percentage distribution of responses for depressed adults than for nondepressed? Give the level of significance for your test and draw conclusions.
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