Question

Teas test

Answer 1

NET/TEAS Nursing School Entrance Review Examination

Practice test: SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Algebra Section:

1) 3987 + 568

(A) 3419

(B) 3445

(C) 4555

(D) 9667

2) 9621 - 4352

(A) 5269

(B) 5331

(C) 5379

(D) 13,973

3) 465 x 1079

(A) 1544

(B) 16,185

(C) 83,235

(D) 501,735

4) 93817 ÷ 23

(A) 479

(B) 4079

(C) 4030 R.7

(D) 43 R.7

5) 742.3 ÷ 57.1

(A) 13

(B) 1.3

(C) .13

(D) None of these

6) 8.02 × 9.65

(A) 7739.3

(B) 773.93

(C) 77.393

(D) 17.76

7) What number is in the thousandths place of 7,956.1423

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 9

8) 519 x 19 =
(A) 8,981
(B) 9,861
(C) 10,681
(D) 9,691

9) 45312 × 14 × 23

(A) 60112

(B) 8538

(C) 87.4125

(D) None of these

10) 15 is 25% of

(A) 0.6

(B) 3.75

(C) 40

(D) 60

11) 18% of 35

(A) 514

(B) 6.3

(C) 53

(D) 194.4

12) 17.5% of (X) is 70

(A) .175

(B) 12.25

(C) 87.5

(D) 400

13) .73 as a percent

(A) .0073

(B) 7.3

(C) 73

(D) 730

14) 13.5 as a percent

(A) .135

(B) 1.35

(C) 135

(D) 1350

15) 7/9 as a percent

(A) 128 %

(B) 77 %

(C) 79%

(D) None of these

16) 150% as a decimal

(A) 1.5

(B) 15

(C) 15,000

(D) None of these

17) 3(2x +10) + 5(3x −6)

(A) 21x + 60

(B) 21x

(C) 13x + 60

(D) 13x

18) −4x2y+4xy2−4x2y+4xy2

(A) 0

(B) − 4x4y2+ 4x2y4

(C) −8x2y+8xy2

(D) 16x4y2 + 16x2y4

19) 7x+ 4 =39

(A) 3

(B) 5

(C) 28

(D) 301

20) 4(x+2)+7=5(x−3)+24

(A) -24

(B) -15

(C) 6

(D) 40

21) 1.5/50% = ?
(A) 3
(B) 4.5
(C) 6
(D) 1.5
22) Express .075 as a percentage.
(A) 75%
(B) 750%
(C) .75%
(D) 7.5%
23) Express the ratio of 6:14 as a percentage.
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 43%
(D) 55%
24) Express 3/8 as a percentage.
(A) 33%
(B) 30%
(C) 37.5%
(D) 40%
25) Express 8.6% as a reduced fraction.
(A) 21/250
(B) 86/1,000
(C) 22/84
(D) 43/500
26) Express 160% as a decimal.
(A) 16
(B) 1.6
(C) .016
(D) .16
27) Solve for x: 24 is 60% of x
(A) 4
(B) 400
(C) 20
(D) 40
28) 8% of x is equal to 48. Solve for x.
(A) 600
(B) 540
(C) 480
(D) 640
29) Express 32/96 as a reduced common fraction.
(A) ½
(B) 2/5
(C) 3/5
(D) 1/3
30) Express 37% as a decimal.
(A) 37.0
(B) .37
(C) 3.7
(D) .037
31) 8 is 40% of x. Solve for x.
(A) 50
(B) 40
(C) 20
(D) 30
32) 25% of x is 50. Solve for x.
(A) 260
(B) 220
(C) 240
(D) 200
33) 4b+2b–5b=
(A) 2b
(B) b
(C) -b
(D) -2b
34) (5y² – 4y) + (2y² + 6y -9) =
(A) 6y² +2y – 9
(B) 7y² + 2y – 9
(C) 6y² + y – 9
(D) 5y² + 2y – 9
35) 4x – 6 = 42. Solve for x.
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 14
36) 5(x – 6) = 4x + 4. Solve for x.
(A) 28
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 34
37) 5ab² + 3ab² =
(A) 8a²b⁴
(B) 8
(C) 8a²b²
(D) 8ab²
38) 5(3y – 5) + 2 – 6(y + 7) =
(A) 7y – 55
(B) 9y – 65
(C) 15y – 55
(D) 10y – 65

39) 7x + 6 = 34. Solve for x.
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) -2
(D) 2
40) 4x + 7 = 2(x – 3). Solve for x.
(A) 6.5
(B) 6
(C) -6.5
(D) -5.5
Math Answer Key

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

5. A

6. C

7. A

8. B

9. D

10. D

11. B

12. D

13. C

14. D

15. B

16. A

17. B

18.C

19.B   

20. C

21. (A) Dividing a decimal fraction by a percentage.
22. (D) Converting decimal fractions to percentages.
23. (C) Converting a ratio to a percentage.
24. (C) Converting a common fraction to a percentage.
25. (D) Converting a percentage to a common fraction.
26. (B) Converting a percentage to a decimal.
27. (D) Finding a number when a percentage of it is known.
28. (A) Finding a number when a percentage of it is known.
29. (D) Converting a percentage to a common fraction.
30. (B) Converting a percentage to a decimal.
31. (C) Finding a number when a percentage of it is known.
32. (D) Finding a number when a percentage of it is known.
33. (B) Collecting similar terms (algebraic addition).
34. (B) Removing parentheses, collecting similar terms (algebraic subtraction).
35. (A) Solving for one unknown (involving algebraic addition and subtraction and division axioms).
36. (D) Solving for one unknown (removal of parentheses through multiplication and utilization of algebraic addition, subtraction, and division axioms).
37. (D) Collecting similar terms having exponents.
38. (B) Removal of parentheses through multiplication followed by collecting similar terms.
39. (A) Solving for an unknown (subtraction, division axioms).
40. (C) Solving for one unknown through parentheses removal and followed by the use of addition and subtraction and division axioms.

Passage Section - Practice Test

Directions: Read the following paragraphs and answer the questions that accompany the paragraphs. Circle the letter of the answer, which you believe most accurately satisfies the requirements of each question.

Paragraph A: Have you ever visited a rain forest? One of the earth’s most magical, treasured resources is the rain forest. Found in many different exotic locations such as the Amazon, North America, Asia, Australia, and Africa, the rain forests have several common but unique characteristics. All are located very closely to the tropical equator. This location determines the high daily temperatures, which can range between 68°F and 82°F. In addition to the high temperatures, daily rain showers account for approximately 32 feet of rain each year. This extremely moist condition keeps the humid climate in the rain forest a tepid and damp one. At first glance, the rain forest appears to be just a lush jungle, but a closer look reveals that this unique environment houses some of the most beautiful and exotic plants and animals in the entire world.

1. The purpose of Paragraph A is to?

    (A) Explain the importance of the rain forest.

    (B) Define a rain forest.

    (C) Introduce the topic of this article.

    (D) Urge steps to be taken to protect rain forests.

Paragraph B: Trees in the rain forest face many challenges. Due to the high humidity and elevated temperatures, the trees reach notable heights and expansive diameters. Because of the rapid growth and the heights of these tropical trees, the leaves project upward to capture the sunlight necessary for photosynthesis, the process where plants synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water for food using sunlight. The abundance and density of these trees require growing trees to push their leaves upward through the leaves of neighboring trees. Each tree fights for its share of the sunlight. The leaves form a dense crown over the rain forest. The result is what is known as the rain forest “canopy.”

2. Which statement is supported by Paragraph B?

    (A) Trees are the most important natural resource in the rain forest.

    (B) Only trees make their food through photosynthesis.

    (C) All forests have a canopy.

    (D) For photosynthesis to occur, sunlight is needed

Paragraph C: This upper layer of protruding leaves in the rain forest becomes a haven for all the vegetation hovering beneath. However, the canopy, as breathtaking and beautiful as it is, can be very problematic for the vegetation below. The layers upon layers of tree leaves prevent much sunlight from filtering through the leaves and finally reaching the smaller trees or flowering tropical plants below. As a result, there is little ground vegetation below except for the thriving plants by the riverbanks. These plants are flourishing and vegetation is extremely condensed

3. Which is an inference that can be drawn from Paragraph C?

    (A) The canopy covers 25% of the rain forest.

    (B) Sunlight is an essential factor in the growth of vegetation.

    (C) Rivers are in all rain forests.

    (D) Vegetation provides the rain forest a beautiful atmosphere.

Paragraph D: Planning a trip? Consider adding a stop at the rain forest. A visit to the rain forest will reveal spectacular trees of many variant types, shapes, and sizes that all have one secret in common - the shape of their leaves. The shape helps the leaves perform a very vital task for the survival of these tropical trees. The leaves of the trees, all green and shiny, have a point at the tip. This point allows water from the rain to drip to the end and drain off. The dripping water sheds from the leaf and dries quickly before the next shower. If the water on the leaf does not drip off, the leaf would not be able to breathe. In addition, the moistened leaf may also become a safe habitat for fungi to thrive and eventually cause the leaf to decay.

4. Which is not a characteristic of some tree leaves in the rain forest?

    (A) The shape of the leaves is pointed.

    (B) The rainwater quickly drips from the pointed leaves.

    (C) Leaves do not harbor fungi.

    (D) If leaves do not breathe, they do not survive.

Paragraph E:   There are many mysteries surrounding the rain forest. One such mystery, the Great Buttress Mystery has baffled hundreds of scientists for many years. Certain trees in the tropical rain forest appear to have giant appendages jetting from the foot of the Great Buttress Tree. These protruding appendages connect between the trunk and roots under the surface of the ground. Theoretically, it was believed that these connectors supported the tree in lightly packed soil, so they could weather the severe storms of the rain forest. Surprisingly, however, research has proven that the survival rate of these trees in storms is not any greater than trees without these appendages. The “Great Buttress Mystery” – why these trees have appendages still confuses scientists and remains a mystery today.

5. The main idea of Paragraph E is?

    (A) Some trees in the rain forest have giant appendages jetting from their base.

    (B) The purpose of the appendages of the Great Buttress Tree is a mystery.

    (C) These trees do not survive in storms more than any other tree.

    (D) The Great Buttress Mystery is puzzling.

Paragraph F: Just like the leaves of these rain forest trees, plants too must compete for the essential sunlight. Two types of plants faced with this challenge are lianes and epiphytes. Lianes begin as very small shrubs that stretch their branches to neighboring trees for support as they encircle the tree trunk and keep growing upwardly until they reach that all important sunlight. At this point, their leaves flourish, and they become one with the trees to form the spectacular canopy. Another tropical type of plant is the epiphyte. The colorful epiphytes are plants that grow high in the compressed canopy of trees. They mysteriously sprout in the indentations of the tree. If they are able to grasp enough sunlight, they survive and become beautiful accents to the rain forest canopy. Orchids and ferns are the most common epiphytes.

6. Which of the following statements is true according to Paragraph F?

    (A) The epiphytes are ground cover.

    (B) Lianes remain small plants.

    (C) The epiphytes grow in the crevices of the branches of the tree.

    (D) Orchids and ferns are lianes.

Paragraph G: Another interesting type of tropical vegetation found in the rain forest is the “choking plant.” This plant develops from a seed. Once cultivated, the sturdy roots take hold deeply in the ground or search for a nearby tree where they can entwine themselves around the trunk. With the roots firmly planted, they begin to grow thicker and thicker. The roots eventually wrap themselves around that tree or an adjacent tree or plant until the tree or plant is killed. The dead tree decays, and only the “choking plant” is left to search for a new victim.

7. What is the main point of Paragraph G?

(A) The dead tree or plant decays, and only the “choking plant” is left to search for a new victim.

(B) Once cultivated, the roots take hold deeply in the ground or search for a nearby tree where they can become intertwined in the trunk.

(C) The roots eventually wrap themselves around the tree or neighboring plant until the tree dies.

(D) Another interesting type of vegetation found in the rain forest is the “choking plant.”

Paragraph H: Today, concern for the survival of the valuable rain forests has heightened. There is a great threat to their existence and measures need to be established to protect them. Like all forests, the rain forests are haunted by “deforestation.” Acres of forests are destroyed everyday with no real plan to control this devastation. In Africa, for example, almost half of the rain forests have disappeared. Why? Slowly society has begun to depend on these rain forests for the vital resources that are needed. Society has begun to utilize this precious land for farming. When the rain forests are farmed, trees are removed to make room for these farms. Cultivation of this land is responsible for much of the “deforestation.” Although this type of farming may be necessary for the survival, steps need to be taken to protect the rain forest in order to maintain its vegetation and wild life. For example, farming the rain forest in one area should be limited to avoid exhaustion of this resource. The possibility of exhausting the resources of the rainforest must always be considered as a threat to the benefit of mankind.

8. What is the main idea of Paragraph A – H?

    (A) The rain forests are valuable resources.

    (B) The rain forests play an important role in the ecosystem.

    (C)There is a great threat to the existence the rain forests.

    (D) The rain forests, which are interesting and valuable resources, are disappearing rapidly and drastic steps need to be taken to save them.

Paragraph I: Birds play a very important role in our environment and the balance of nature. First, birds eradicate pests that are a threat to our food crops. Each year, the bird population devours millions of harmful insects, which may invade our food supply. Because these insects are utilized as a food supply for themselves, our food supply is protected. But insects are not their only food supply. Some birds such as the hawk and owls provide a great service to farmers. They eliminate pesky rodents, which may destroy the farmer’s fruit orchards, grain fields, or poultry supply. In addition, some feathered friends such as the vulture, crow, or sea gulls become nature’s trash collectors. They prey on dead animals found on roads and beaches. Birds are a valuable factor in the balance of nature equation.

9.    Which factor in Paragraph I support the topic of cleaning up the highways?

    (A) Each year the bird population devours millions of insects.

    (B) Some birds such as the vulture, crow, or seagull prey on dead animals.

    (C) With the help of birds, plant seeds in one region can be transferred miles away.

    (D) Many rodents destroy the farmer’s fruit orchards, grain fields, and poultry supply.

Paragraph J: Birds also contribute to our vital food supply by disseminating plant seeds throughout the world. Plant seeds attach to their feathers and drop off as the birds fly from one destination to another. With the help of birds, plant seeds in one distant region may be easily and efficiently transferred thousands of miles away. If the ground and climate are favorable, the seeds germinate and the plant seed finds a new area where it can grow and flourish. Although, most people value the bird population for its beauty, grace, and strategic flight formation, it is important to appreciate the many services that birds provide to humanity such as the distribution of plant seeds throughout the world.

10.    Which is the main idea of Paragraph J?

    (A) Birds help in increasing the insect population.

    (B) Birds contribute to the spread of plants to remote areas.

    (C) Farmers consider hawks and vultures their enemies.

    (D) Birds are mainly considered valuable for their ability to sing.

Paragraph K: Birds play a very important role in our ecology. Ornithologists have identified over 9,000 varieties of birds. To help research and preserve the different bird populations, John James, a Canadian and member of the Audubon Society, began the practice of bird banding. Today, millions of birds are banded and monitored throughout the world. The banding is maintained to collect data on how long different varieties of birds live, where they migrate, and how long it takes for them to get to their locations. Remarkably, there are a variety of birds banded in the United States found as far as Siberia in the Soviet Union.

11.    A statement supported by paragraph K

    (A) Bird banding is only done n the United States.

    (B) Bird banding is a valuable practice.

    (C) Bird banding is not a valuable practice.

    (D) Bird banding is limited to Canada and the United States

Paragraph L: Thanks to John James and the Audubon Society, bird banding has provided valuable research. This research has determined the number of years a bird lives differ with each species. For example, some Caspian terns live twenty-six years, mallards and pintails live twenty years, and osprey and ring-billed gulls live twenty-one years. Purple martins can live fourteen years, and a chimney swift can live thirteen years. Song sparrows live approximately half as many years less; tree sparrows, juncos, robins and cardinals live, eight, nine, eleven, and twelve years respectively.

12.    The purpose of Paragraph L is to establish which point?

    (A) Song sparrows live longer than Caspian terns.

    (B) Vital statistics are established through the help of bird banding.

    (C) Larger birds live longer.

    (D) Bird banding should not be taken seriously.

Paragraph M: Although many birds that migrate do not make it to their destination because of weather, enemies, or food shortages, many do migrate farther and faster than expected. Amazingly a pintail duck flew from Canada to England in eighteen days. A great blue heron arrived in Coahuela, Mexico from Oregon in nineteen days. A peregrine falcon from Greenland was found in Cuba after four months. A water thrush from Long Island was found sixty-three days later in Venezuela.

13.    Based on Paragraph M, which of the following statements is true?

    (A) A great blue heron arrived in Cuba in four months.

    (B) A water thrush from Long Island was found in Venezuela after sixty days.

    (C) A peregrine falcon flew to Canada from England

    (D) Some birds do not arrive at their destination because of the weather.

Paragraph N: For the sake of research, bird banding is important to everyone. Society as a whole can help in this important effort; if an individual sees a bird with a band, he/she should take time to report the number on the band to the phone number on the tag. This effort is rewarded with a note of appreciation and all the known facts about that particular bird.

14.    The main idea of Paragraph N is?

    (A) Bird banding is an important practice.

    (B) It is an important part of bird banding for individuals to look for banded birds and report them.

    (C) Being a bird watcher can provide entertainment.

    (D) People should learn to appreciate the beauty and services birds provide.

Paragraph O:   Perhaps the practice of bird banding could have helped the passenger pigeon to survive. The passenger pigeon was a 15 inch wild pigeon. It was light pink in color with gray feathers. Until the 1800’s, there had been a large population of these pigeons in North America. At one time, 2,230,000,000 birds were spotted. Always traveling and nesting in large groups made these birds easy prey for greedy hunters. They blinded the birds with lights and plucked them out of the tree with poles. Some birds were even choked with burning sulfur. Once captured, they were then shot. Unfortunately, the passenger pigeons were either eaten or sold to markets in New York City and Chicago for a penny or two.

Paragraph P: Eventually, the passenger pigeon population decreased because of its mating habits. Realizing that the breed would become soon extinct, the last pair of passenger pigeons was harbored in the Cincinnati Zoological Garden. It was hoped that they would eventually reproduce so that the species would survive. They produced one egg, but, unfortunately, it did not hatch. Soon both pigeons died, and regretfully, a breed of 9 billion had become extinct.

15.    From paragraphs O and P, you can infer which of the statements about the passenger pigeon?

    (A) The hunters were aware that the passenger pigeons were valuable.

    (B) Extinction of the passenger pigeon was inevitable.

    (C) The possibility of the extinction of the passenger pigeon was not realized early enough.

    (D) Passenger pigeons were a hardy breed

16.    A main point in Paragraph P is? In captivity, the passenger pigeon

(A) Fought with its mate.

(B) Attacked other birds.

(C) Seldom mated

(D) Refused to eat.

PASSAGE ANSWERS

Question 1

(A)    is incorrect. There is no mention of why the rain forest is important.

(B)    is correct. The paragraph describes the rain forest.

(C)    is incorrect. This statement is too broad. The word "topic" does not explain exactly what the paragraph is about.

(D)    is incorrect. The paragraph does not mention the steps to protect the rain forest.

Question 2

(A)    is incorrect. There is no proof that trees are the most important natural resource in the rain forest.

(B)    is incorrect. There is no proof that only trees make their food through photosynthesis.

(C)    is incorrect. It is not true all forests have a canopy.

(D)    is correct. The third sentence states, "Because of the rapid growth and the heights of these tropical trees, the leaves project upward to capture the sunlight necessary for photosynthesis.

Question 3

(A)    is incorrect. The paragraph does state "This upper layer of protruding leaves in the rain forest becomes a covering over all the vegetation hovering beneath."

(B)    is correct. The paragraph states "The layers upon layer of tree leaves prevent much sunlight from filtering through the leaves and finally reaching the small trees or flowering tropical plants below. As a result, there is little ground vegetation below. It can be inferred from this statement that sunlight is essential for vegetation to grow. Because little sunlight reached the trees and plants there was little vegetation below the leaves.

(C)    is incorrect. There is no specific proof that states rivers are in all rain forests. All is an absolute world. This means every single one.

(D)    is incorrect. There is no mention of the vegetation being beautiful.

Question 4

Note: The question asks "Which is not a characteristic of some tree leaves in the rain forest?"

(A)    is incorrect. The paragraph states, "The leaves of the trees, all green and shiny, have a point at the tip."

(B)    is incorrect. The paragraph states "The dripping water sheds from the leaf and dries quickly before the next shower."

(C)    is correct. This statement is not a characteristic of tree leaves because the paragraph states"...the moistened leaf may also become a safe haven for fungi to thrive."

(D)    is incorrect. The paragraph states "If the water on the leaf does not drip off, the leaf would not be able to breathe."

Question 5

(A)    is incorrect. This statement does not identify what kind of trees. This statement is too broad.

(B)    is correct. This statement precisely states that this paragraph will explain that it is still a mystery why the Great Buttress Tree has appendages.

(C)    is incorrect. This statement is too narrow. It is stated in the paragraph that"...research has proven that the survival rate of these trees in storms is not any greater than trees without these appendages." However, this is just one fact. It is not what the entire paragraph is about.

(D)    is incorrect. This statement is too broad. It does not state what is puzzling about the Great Buttress Mystery. It still leaves questions in the reader's mind.

Question 6

(A)    is incorrect. The paragraph states that "...epiphytes are plants that grow high in the compressed canopy of trees."

(B)    is incorrect. The paragraph states that "they encircle the tree trunk and keep growing upwardly until they reach that all important sunlight.

(C) is correct. The paragraph states "They (epiphytes) mysteriously sprout in the indentation of the tree." The word "crevice" is a synonym for indentation.

(D)    is incorrect. The paragraph states "Orchids and ferns are lianes."

Question 7

(A)    is incorrect. This statement is too specific. It is only one fact. It does not explain what the entire paragraph is about.

(B)    is incorrect. This statement is too specific. It is only one fact. It does not explain what the entire paragraph is about.

(C)    is incorrect. This statement is too specific. It is only one fact. It does not explain what the entire paragraph is about.

(D)    is correct. This statement precisely states that this paragraph will describe what is a "choking plant."

Question 8

(A)    is incorrect. This statement is too specific. It is stated that the rain forests is a valuable resource, but it does not mention it is threatened.

(B)    is incorrect. This statement is an inference. It does not summarize the entire paragraph.

(C)    is incorrect. This statement is too specific. It only discusses the "threat."

(D)    is correct. This statement effectively expresses the main idea. It states that there is a threat to the rain forest and steps should be taken to pretect it. This is a paraphrase of sentence two.

Question 9

(A)     is incorrect. It is a true statement, but it cannot be inferred that "devouring millions of insects will help to clean up the highway."

(B)    is correct. It is a true statement, and it can be inferred that if some birds such as the vulture, crow, or seagull prey on dead animals, they will eat the animals and, therefore, clean the highway.

(C)    is incorrect. Plant seeds do not cause a problem on the highway.

(D)    is incorrect. This statement is irrelevant. It is about the highway not the farmer's fruit orchards, grain field, or poultry supply.

Question 10

(A)    is incorrect. This statement was irrelevant. It was not mentioned.

(B)    is correct. This statement precisely explains that this paragraph is about how birds contribute to the spread of plants to remote areas. This is stated in sentence one.

(C)    is incorrect. This statement is irrelevant. It was not mentioned.

(D)    is incorrect. This statement is irrelevant. It was not mentioned.

Question 11

(A)    is incorrect. The paragraph states, :"Today, millions of birds are banded and monitored throughout the world."

(B)    is correct. It can be concluded that bird banding is a valuable practice because the paragraph states, "The banding is maintained to collect data on how long different varieties of birds live, where they migrate, and how long it takes for them to get to their locations.

(C)    is incorrect. The paragraph proves that bird banding is valuable for several reasons.

(D)    is incorrect. Bird banding is not limited to Canada and the United States because the paragraph states, "Today, millions of birds are banded and monitored throughout the world.

Question 12

(A)    is incorrect. Some math must be done to conclude the answer. The paragraph states "Some Caspian terns live twenty-six years." "Song sparrows live approximately half as many years less" than other birds. "Purple martins can live fourteen years and chimney swift can live thirteen years." If you average the number of years a purple martin and a chimney swift can live it is seven and a half, which means the song sparrow lives only six and a half years. If the Caspian tern lives twenty six, which is almost twenty years more.

(B)    is correct. According to the paragraph, "Thanks to John James and the Audubon Society, bird banding has provided valuable research."

(C)    is incorrect. Although many birds are mentioned. Their size is not. Thus, we have no proof that larger birds live longer.

(D)    is incorrect. The writer has provided substantial evidence that bird banding does provide valuable information about a variety of birds.

Question 13

(A)    is incorrect. The paragraph states, "A great blue heron arrived in Coahuela, Mexico not Cuba.

(B)    is incorrect. The paragraph states, "A water thrush from Long Island was found sixty three days later in Venezuela" not sixty.

(C)    is incorrect. The paragraph states, "A peregrine from Greenland was found in Cuba after four months." Nothing was mentioned that it flew to Canada from England.

(D)    is correct. The paragraph states, "...many birds that migrate do not make it to their destination because of weather..."

Question 14

(A)    is incorrect. This statement is true but it is too broad to be the main idea of this paragraph. It leaves questions in the mind of the reader. The reader may ask the question why is bird banding an important practice? This paragraph as a whole deals with reporting banded birds.

(B)    is correct. This statement precisely states the main idea of this paragraph. This main idea is summarized in sentence two.

(C)    is incorrect. This statement is irrelevant. The paragraph does not explain what kind of entertainment bird watching can provide.

(D)    is incorrect. This statement is also irrelevant. This paragraph does not describe the beauty and services the birds provide.

Question 15

(A)    is incorrect. The paragraph states, "Unfortunately, the passenger pigeons were either eaten or sold to markets in New York City and Chicago for a penny or two." This proves the passenger pigeons were not very valuable.

(B)    is incorrect. There is no proof that "extinction of passenger pigeon was inevitable." The paragraph simply stated the events.

(C)    is correct. There is proof that the "possibility of extinction" was not realized early enough. When the threat of extinction became a reality, steps were taken to try to breed the passenger pigeon. However, it failed.

(D)    is incorrect. There is no proof that the passenger pigeon was a hardy breed. They seemed to perish rather quickly before only two birds were alive to breed.

Question 16

(A)    is incorrect. The statement is irrelevant. There is no proof stated that the passenger pigeon fought with its mate.

(B)    is incorrect. This statement is irrelevant. There is no proof that the passenger pigeon attacked other birds.

(C)    is correct. The paragraph states, "Eventually, the passenger pigeon's population decreased because of it's mating habits."

(D)    is incorrect. This statement is irrelevant. There is no mention of the passenger pigeon's refusal to eat.

Science portion:

1. Which cellular organelle contains enzymes that are considered digestive?

(A) Golgi Apparatus
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Nucleus
(D) Ribosomes

2. Organs repair themselves through a process of?

(A) Meiosis
(B) Mitosis
(C) Cellular differentiation
(D) Transformation

3. Which of the following is not true about enzymes?

(A) Enzymes are catalysts.
(B) Almost all enzymes are proteins.
(C) Enzymes operate most efficiently at optimum pH.
(D) Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions.

4. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is not true?

(A) Prostaglandins promote inflammation.
(B) Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels.
(C) Prostaglandins are made in the renal medull(a)
(D) Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever.

5. Cholesterol that is known as (LDL) stands for:

(A) Low-density lipoproteins
(B) Low-density lysosomes
(C) Level-density lipoproteins
(D) Level-density lysosomes

6. Hardening of the arteries is known as:

(A) Atheriosclerosis
(B) Venous narrowing
(C) Micro-circulation
(D) Hypertension

7. The top number on a blood pressure reading indicates:

(A) Diastolic pressure
(B) Transient pressure
(C) Optimum pressure
(D) Systolic pressure

8. Breathing properly requires the presence of what compound that affects surface tension of alveoli in the lungs?

(A) Potassium
(B) Plasma
(C) Surfactant
(D) Sodium Chloride

9. Which is not a function of the kidney?

(A) Secretion
(B) Reabsorption
(C) Transport
(D) Filtration

10. The functional unit of the kidney is known as?

(A) Medulla
(B) Glomerulus
(C) Pyramid
(D) Nephron

11. Which is the ideal gas law?

(A) PV= knT or PV=RnT
(B) V=kT
(C) PV = k
(D) KTV =PR

12. Which of the following is not considered a characteristic or property of a gas?

(A) Volume
(B) Mass
(C) Pressure
(D) Particles

13. Which of the following is described in the definition: An object immersed in a fluid is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object?

(A) Archimedes' principle
(B) Charles' law
(C) Boyle's law
(D) Anderson's principle

14. High frequency sound waves are known as:

(A) Fundamental waves
(B) Overtones
(C) Consonance waves
(D) Dissonance waves

15. What anatomical structure connects the stomach and the mouth?

(A) Trachea
(B) Spinal column
(C) Hepatic duct
(D) Esophagus

16. Which of the following is considered a component of lipids?

(A) Plasma cells
(B) Fatty acids
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Zinc

17. Blood enters the lungs from which chamber of the heart?

(A) Right atrium
(B) Left atrium
(C) Right ventricle
(D) Left ventricle

18. Excessive consumption of alcohol is most likely to damage which organ of the body over a long period of time?

(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Gallbladder

19. Which of the following is not considered a type of radiation ray?

(A) Gamma
(B) Beta
(C) Alpha
(D) Infrared

20. A molecule of hemoglobin can hold how many molecules of oxygen in the blood for transport?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

21. Which of the following best describes the biomechanics of breathing?

(A) Pump handle motion
(B) Lever action
(C) Inspiration
(D) Expiration

22. The physical expressions of a gene are known as an organism's:

(A) Transcription
(B) Genotype
(C) Phenotype
(D) Translation

23. Neurons connect together at a ______.

(A) Synergy
(B) Terminal site
(C) Docking station
(D) Synapse

24. The organ of Corti is found in what area of the body?

(A) Mouth
(B) Ear
(C) Nose
(D) Lungs

25. Rickets - which is a condition caused by which vitamin deficiency?

(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) Z
26. Which is the x cranial nerve?

(A) Abducens
(B) Hypoglossal
(C) Facial
(D) Vagus

27. Which of the following pH ranges is a strong base?

(A) 1.3-2.0
(B) 4.5-5.2
(C) 7.1-9.0
(D) 11.2-12.0

28. Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the systemic circulation?

(A) Left Atrium
(B) Right Atrium
(C) Left Ventricle
(D) Right Ventricle

Science Answer Key

1. B
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. B
19.D
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. C
26. D
27. D
28.

English Grammar Portion

1. What is grammatically wrong with the sentence I would like to briefly make a point?

Nothing. There is no grammatical reason why infinitives should not be split in English. The "rule" about not splitting them is based solely on the fact that infinitives cannot be split in Latin. There is no reason why rules of Latin should be applied to English.

2. Why can you not say I am living here since 1990?

Because since here refers to a period of time extending from the past into the present, you would need to use the Present Perfect Simple or Progressive (I have lived / I have been living here since 1990).

3. How do you pronounce the letters -ed at the end of regular past tense verbs?

There are three possible pronunciations: /d/ as in climbed, /t/ as in walked, and /id/ as in waite(d)

4. What is the negative form of the sentence He must leave right away?

It depends what meaning you are trying to convey. In the sense of something not being permitted, the negative form is either He must not leave right away or (more commonly) He cannot leave right away. In the sense of something not being compulsory, the negative form is He does not have to leave right away.

5. Which syllable carries the main stress or emphasis in the words record and export?

It depends whether you are using the words as nouns or verbs. The nouns a record and an export have stress on the first syllable. The verbs to record and to export have stress on the second syllable.

6. Which is grammatically correct: I wish I were younger or I wish I was younger?

Older, prescriptive grammar books insist on the use of the subjunctive form were. Most modern, descriptive grammar books accept both were and was as being grammatically acceptable, but they suggest that I wish I were is more appropriate in formal contexts.

7. What is a phrasal verb?

It is a phrase made up of a verb and one or more prepositions (or adverbs). In many cases, the meaning of the whole phrase cannot be deduced from the component words. For example, you may understand the words run and across, but still not understand the sentence He ran across a frien(d)

8. Think of five ways of changing She arrived at 6:00 into the future.

She will arrive at 6:00. / She arrives at 6:00. / She is arriving at 6:00. / She will be arriving at 6:00. / She is going to arrive at 6:00.

9. The negative of She used to smoke is She didn't used to smoke. True or false?

False. The negative is She didn't use to smoke.

10. Which is grammatically more correct: I have just seen her or I just saw her?

Both are equally correct in American English. I just saw her is not correct in British English.

11. The verbs will, should, need, may and can are all modal auxiliary verbs. True or false?

False. Will, should, may and can are modal auxiliaries but need is not. (The infinitive form of modal auxiliaries cannot be preceded by to: You cannot say to may or to should but you can say to nee(d))

Please rate my answer if it is useful to you :) Thank you.