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Question 1 3 pts The solution of the Initial-Value Problem (IVP) Į (x + y)dx – xdy = 0 1 y(1) = 0 is given by Oy= (x + y) In
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Answer #1

Given da! = Rpx-xp(htx) o=hpr-xphtepx <= => xdx = aph-apr re se dre ndy-y du x? ap d(2) xdy-ydu = -> dxud() sal da x? =xar te0 = 1 (In 1-c) => 0 = 110-c) [ en 1=o => o =0-e get => c=0 Hence from ③ we y = x (lnx-o) lar. => y=x Last option is conpeet.Remember the formula i used. In a line during handwritten may be little problem that is

y/x = ln x +C.

.If you have any problem please comment. I will explain

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