Prove that if
is mesurable then E is mesurable when
and
where
is the complement of E
Prove that if is mesurable then E is mesurable when and where is the complement of...
Prove the following
Let
with
Then:
i)
if and only if
where the double inequality
means
and
ii) If
,
if and only if
.
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Use mathematical induction to prove summation formulae. Be sure
to identify where you use the inductive hypothesis.
Let
be the statement
for the positive integer
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Define
, a finite
-group, such that
isn't abelian. Let
such that
, where
is abelian.
Prove that there are either
or
such abelian subgroups, and if there are
, then the index of
in
is
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Using FTLM. a) Let . Use linear algebra to prove that there is a polynomial such that p + p' - 3p'' = q. Hint: consider the map defined by Tp: p + p' - 3p'', and use FTLM. b) Let be distinct elements of . Let be any elements of . Use linear algebra to prove that there is a such that Hint: consider the map defined by . You can use any facts from algebra about the solution...
Let
be an inner product space (over
or
), and
. Prove that
is an eigenvalue of
if and only if
(the conjugate of
) is an eigenvalue of
(the adjoint of
).
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1. Let and be subspaces of
. Prove
that is also a
subspace of .
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Use the Eisenstein Criterion to prove that if
is a squarefree integer, then
is irreducible in
for every
. Conclude that there are irreducible polynomials in
of every degree
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For , prove that where is the collection of all continuous, linear maps from V into W. We were unable to transcribe this imagesup {llITr B(V,W)
Prove that a function →
is
recursive if and only if its graph is a recursive subset of
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Let yp(y) be the C(2) inverse demand function facing a monopoly, where y++ is its rate of output, and let yC(y) be the C(2) total cost function of the monopoly. Assume that p(y)>0, p'(y)<0, and C'(y)>0 for all y++, and that a profit maximizing rate of output exists. Total revenue is therefore given by R(y)=p(y)y. Given that question uses an inverse demand function, the elasticity of demand, namely (y), is defined as (y)= 1/p'y p(y)/y. Why is (y)<0? Prove that...