Question

Should morality, in and of itself, be considered a sufficient basis for defining particular conduct as...

Should morality, in and of itself, be considered a sufficient basis for defining particular conduct as criminal
0 0
Add a comment Improve this question Transcribed image text
Answer #1

No, morality Should not be considered a sufficient basis for defining particular conduct as criminal. It is because that without the interference of law it can't be determine whether any conduct is crime or not. Law recognize only facts and evidence and on these basis, law decide whether a particular act would be come within the ambit of crime or not. If law would consider morality in any case then it will also see the situation, fact of the case, whether any person was compelled to do that particular act or not. So morality alone is not sufficient to determine the conduct criminal or not.

Thanks

Add a comment
Know the answer?
Add Answer to:
Should morality, in and of itself, be considered a sufficient basis for defining particular conduct as...
Your Answer:

Post as a guest

Your Name:

What's your source?

Earn Coins

Coins can be redeemed for fabulous gifts.

Not the answer you're looking for? Ask your own homework help question. Our experts will answer your question WITHIN MINUTES for Free.
Similar Homework Help Questions
ADVERTISEMENT
Free Homework Help App
Download From Google Play
Scan Your Homework
to Get Instant Free Answers
Need Online Homework Help?
Ask a Question
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 3 hours.
ADVERTISEMENT
ADVERTISEMENT
ADVERTISEMENT