Question

Which electrolyte measurement is least affected by hemolysis?

a. Calciumb.

b- Magnesium

c. Potassium

d. Total Bilirubin

Question 2 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following should cause specimen rejection for platelet aggregation studies?

a. The sample hematocrit is too high

.b. The sample is hemolyzed.

c. The sample is over-anticoagulated.

d. The sample platelet count is too low.

Question 3 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is usually positive in a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a. Bilirubinb.

b- Blood

c. Glucose

d. Ketones

Question 4 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is the best way to identify yeast in a microscopic urine examination?

a. Yeast organisms are found budding or in chains.

b. Yeast organisms are ovoid.

c. Yeast organisms are smaller than RBCs.

d. Yeast organisms will lyse in dilute acetic acid.

Question 5 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is true of ABO grouping?

a. ABO antibodies are usually of the IgM class.

b. Newborns have antibodies on their blood cells.

c. Reverse typing need not always be done.

d. There is an anti-O antibody.

Question 6 of 35 Required Question

The operation of blood banks is ultimately regulated by the:

a. American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)

.b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

c. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).

d. U. S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

Question 7 of 35 Required Question

How does the time of specimen collection affect chemistry tests?

a. Corticosteroids are not affected by the time of collection.

b. Glucose and cholesterol usually change after eating.

c. Iron concentration is constant throughout the day.

d. Triglycerides do not change after eating.

Question 8 of 35 Required Question

_________________ is a growth medium that supports the growth of most organisms.

a. Chocolate agar

b. EMB agar

c. Thayer-Martin agar

d. TSA with 5% sheep blood

Question 9 of 35 Required Question

Urine specific gravity:

a. does not vary from day to day.

b. has a reference range of 1.005 – 1.030

.c. is unaffected by fluid intake.

d. is usually highest in the evening.

Question 10 of 35 Required Question

_____________ is the reaction that occurs when soluble antigen is reacted with specific antibody.

a. Agglutination

b. Diffusion

c. Fixation

d. Precipitation

Question 11 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is true of the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)?

a. Blood is collected in a 3.8% sodium citrate solution

.b. Serum for testing is obtained by centrifuging whole blood.

c. The mean reference value is about 35 seconds.

d. The ratio of anticoagulant to blood is 1:5.

Question 12 of 35 Required Question

Why must a specimen in a red top tube be allowed to sit for at least 15 minutes before spinning it?

a. Platelet count results may otherwise be adversely affected.

b. Prothrombin results may otherwise be adversely affected.

c. The tube will break if spun before 15 minutes.

d. This action will allow the specimen to clot completely.

Question 13 of 35 Required Question

Strong acids and bases are classified as:

a. carcinogens.

b. chemical irritants.

c. corrosives.

d. flammable liquids.

Question 14 of 35 Required Question

Which is true of hemoglobin analysis?

a. It is an indirect measure of oxygen-carrying capacity.

b. It is determined from an anticoagulated venous blood sample.

c. It measures the red cell volume.

d. No stable standard is available.

Question 15 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following tests can be helpful in the assessment of liver function?

a. ALT

b. BUN

c. Creatine kinase

d. Glucose

Question 16 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is the most common cause of leukocytosis?

a. Infection

b. Rheumatoid arthritis

c. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

d. Vitamin deficiencies

Question 17 of 35 Required Question

The CBC differential count should show:

a. 7%-13% bands for an adult.

b. 45%-50% neutrophils for a 1-month-old infant.

c. 45%-50% neutrophils for an adult.

d. an average of 7-20 platelets/oil immersion field.

Question 18 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is true of casts?

a. An occasional epithelial cast is normal.

b. An occasional hyaline cast is normal.

c. Normal urine can have a few WBC casts.

d. Waxy casts are due to strenuous exercise.

Question 19 of 35 Required Question

When tested with a urine reagent strip, normal urine has:

a. a pH range of 6-9.

b. a positive esterase reaction.

c. a trace of glucose.

d. negative or trace protein.

Question 20 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following results would most likely be observed in plasma from a lavender top tube?

a. Falsely decreased calcium, falsely decreased potassium

b. Falsely decreased calcium, falsely elevated potassium

c. Falsely elevated calcium, falsely decreased potassium

d. Falsely elevated calcium, falsely elevated potassium

Question 21 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is true?

a. A slight tilt of the ESR tube has no effect on the results.

b. Low temperatures cause the erythrocytes to settle more rapidly.

c. Plasma proteins affect the size of RBCs.

d. The ESR is affected by the RBC count.

Question 22 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following non-fasting plasma/serum lab values are considered to be critical and need to be called to the attention of the attending nurse or provider?

a. Glucose: 227 g/dL

b. Magnesium: 6.4 mg/dL

c. Potassium: 3.2 mEq/L

d. Troponin 1: 0.04 ng/mL

Question 23 of 35 Required Question

Minimum inhibitory concentration is:

a. a concentration using antigen-antibody reactions.

b. the concentration area around the antibiotic disk.

c. the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit growth.

d. the same as the Bauer-Kirby method.

Question 24 of 35 Required Question

How often must controls be run when automated coagulation testing is being performed?

a. Every 2 hours of operation and whenever the reagent is changed

b. Every 8 hours of operation and whenever the reagent is changed

c. Once a day or whenever the reagent is changed

d. Once an hour or whenever the reagent is changed

Question 25 of 35 Required Question

______________ controls should be used by a healthcare worker who will be collecting a blood specimen from a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis.

a. Administrative

b. Environmental

c. Minimal

d. Respiratory protection

Question 26 of 35 Required Question

When preparing slides by the two-slide method, which of the following is true?

a. A large drop of blood makes the best smear.

b. Smears with holes and ridges are acceptable.

c. The smear should cover one-half to three-fourths of the slide.

d. The spreader slide can be used to prepare several smears.

Question 27 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following statements about D-dimer is true?

a. D-dimer is a sensitive marker of fibrin formation and fibrinolysis that occurs with the formation of blood clots

.b. D-dimer is a specific marker of fibrin formation and fibrinolysis that occurs with the formation of blood clots.

c. The presence of D-dimer in the blood is not a reliable clue that clotting has begun.

d. When a D-dimer method that has been validated by medical literature is used for the purpose of detecting DVT or PE, a positive test will confirm a diagnosis of DVT or PE.

Question 28 of 35 Required Question

What is the most common test performed in immunohematology laboratories?

a. Blood typing.

b- Direct antibody testing (DAT)

c. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

d. Weak D testing

Question 29 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is the specimen of choice for a prothrombin time test?

a. Capillary puncture blood

b. Heparinized whole blood

c. Plasma

d. Serum

Question 30 of 35 Required Question

The class of antibody produced first after exposure to an antigen is:

a. IgA

.b. IgE.

c. IgG.

d. IgM.

Question 31 of 35 Required Question

Red blood cells in iron deficiency anemia are:

a. hypochromic.

b. macrocytic

.c. normocytic.

d. normocytic and hypochromic.

Question 32 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following statements is true of urine specimens being cultured for bacteria?

a. The container need not be sterile.

b. The culture must be set up before the routine urinalysis is done.

c. The patient uses one towelette for cleansing.

d. The urine can be left on the lab bench 2-4 hours before culture.

Question 33 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is the preferred marker for the definitive diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction?

a. B-type or brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

b. Creatine kinase MB or CK-MB (CK-2)

c. Myoglobin

d. Troponin

Question 34 of 35 Required Question

According to The Joint Commission, which of the following is an unacceptable patient identifier?

a. The patient’s address

b. The patient’s date of birth

c. The patient’s name

d. The patient’s room number

Question 35 of 35 Required Question

Which of the following is the best venipuncture site for a patient with an IV?

a. Above the IV

b. Below the IV

c. Next to the IV

d. The arm opposite the IV

Answer 1

Please do not ask more than four questions in a single query. This is according to Chegg rules and regulations. However, I answered six questions for you. Thank you.

1) Which electrolyte measurement is least affected by hemolysis?

Ans: a. Calcium

2) Which of the following should cause specimen rejection for platelet aggregation studies?

Ans: b. The sample is hemolyzed.

3) Which of the following is usually positive in a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

Ans: c. Glucose

4) Which of the following is the best way to identify yeast in a microscopic urine examination?

Ans: a. Yeast organisms are found budding or in chains

5) Which of the following is true of ABO grouping?

Ans: a. ABO antibodies are usually of the IgM class.

6) The operation of blood banks is ultimately regulated by the

Ans: d. U. S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).