This question can be solved easily using excel
We have to find the cash flows for all three cranes and then we need to calculate the net present value. The crane which has the highest NPV will be selected.
The details of NPV for crane A is given below
Crane A | ||||||||
5Yr MACR | 20% | 32% | 19.20% | 11.52% | 11.52% | 5.76% | ||
Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | Terminal Value | |
Initial Outlay | -30000 | 12000 | ||||||
EBITDA | 32000 | 32000 | 32000 | 32000 | 32000 | |||
Change in WC | -4000 | 4000 | ||||||
Depreciation | 9600 | 15360 | 9216 | 5530 | 5530 | |||
EBIT | 22400 | 16640 | 22784 | 26470.4 | 26470.4 | |||
Tax | 8960 | 6656 | 9114 | 10588 | 10588 | |||
Net Income | 13440 | 9984 | 13670 | 15882 | 15882 | |||
PV | -34000 | 12218 | 8251 | 10271 | 10848 | 9862 | 9935 | |
NPV | 27384 |
Description
1. The first row gives detail about the depreciation rate in MACR method
2. Initial Outlay is the amount paid in purchase and installation of the crane minus the
amount received by selling existing crane = 40000+8000-18000
3. EBITDA is the earnings before depreciation tax as given in the table in question
4. Change in working capital is the increase in working capital as mentioned in the question. This increase reduces the cash flows hence it is shown with a negative sign
5. Depreciation is (cost of machine + installation)* MACR rate for that year (eg for the first-year rate is 20%)
6.. EBIT = EBITDA - Depreciation
7. Tax = EBIT * 0.4 (since, tax rate is 40%)
8. Net income = EBIT - Tax
9. PV =present value of cash flow
10 NPV = net present value calculated using the sum of the present values
Similarly, we calculated NPV for crane B
Crane B | ||||||||
5Yr MACR | 20% | 32% | 19.20% | 11.52% | 11.52% | 5.76% | ||
Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | Terminal Value | |
Initial Outlay | -42000 | 20000 | ||||||
EBITDA | 28000 | 29000 | 36000 | 40000 | 40000 | |||
Change in WC | -6000 | 6000 | ||||||
Depreciation | 12000 | 19200 | 11520 | 6912 | 6912 | |||
EBIT | 16000 | 9800 | 24480 | 33088 | 33088 | |||
Tax | 6400 | 3920 | 9792 | 13235 | 13235 | |||
Net Income | 9600 | 5880 | 14688 | 19853 | 19853 | |||
PV | -48000 | 8727 | 4860 | 11035 | 13560 | 12327 | 16144 | |
NPV | 18653 |
We also calculated the NPV for existing crane
The differences in this case from the previous two were
1. The initial outlay is zero as the cost to purchase the crane is a sunk cost
2. There is no change in working capital
3. the Depreciation rate for first-year is 19.2% (as on;y 3 years left in 5 yr MACR)
the NPV for the existing crane is as follows
Existing Crane | ||||||||
5Yr MACR | 20% | 32% | 19.20% | 11.52% | 11.52% | 5.76% | ||
Year | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | Terminal Value | |
Initial Outlay | 0 | 1000 | ||||||
EBITDA | 14000 | 14000 | 14000 | 14000 | 14000 | |||
Depreciation | 6144 | 3686 | 3686 | |||||
EBIT | 7856 | 10314 | 10314 | 14000 | 14000 | |||
Tax | 3142 | 4125 | 4125 | 5600 | 5600 | |||
Net Income | 4714 | 6188 | 6188 | 8400 | 8400 | |||
PV | 0 | 4285 | 5114 | 4649 | 5737 | 5216 | 621 | |
NPV | 25623 |
Here, we can see that the NPV is maximum in case of crane A.
Hence they should replace the existing crane with crane A
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