multiple choice questions
32. All of the following are standard tests used for the
diagnosis and prediction of response to treatment of hepatitis C
except:
(A) Hepatitis C antibody [EIA]
(B) Patient IL-28B genotype testing
(C) Hepatitis C antigen
(D) Hepatitis C genotype
(E) Hepatitis C RNA by polymerase chain reaction or
transcription-mediated
amplification
33. Which of the following is not associated with accelerated
disease progression in hepatitis C?
(A) alcohol use
(B) coinfection with hepatitis B
(C) coinfection with HIV
(D) disease acquisition later in life
(E) hepatitis C RNA level
34. The epidemiological and molecular data collected about the
hepatitis D virus suggest that this virus is:
(A) a defective virus
(B) a retrovirus
(C) able to replicate autonomously
(D) an incomplete variant of Hepatitis B virus
(E) transmitted by contaminated food and water
35. The epidemiological and molecular data collected about the
Hepatitis C virus suggest that this virus:
(A) can only replicate when co-infecting a cell with Hepatitis
B virus
(B) is a member of the picornavirus family
(C) is associated with acute, self-limiting forms of
hepatitis
(D) is a leading indication for liver transplantation in the
US
(E) is spread in ways similar to Hepatitis A virus
37. All of the following are true respect to vaccination
against polio virus EXCEPT:
A) Both a live attenuated trivalent oral polio vaccine (OPV)
and a killed, inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) are available.
B) OPV is reserved for use in control of wild-type polio virus
outbreaks and for persons who travel to polio-endemic areas when
there is insufficient time to complete the full immunization
schedule with IPV.
C) OPV is recommended for persons with compromised immune
function and household contacts of an immunocompromised
individual.
D) IPV is the vaccine of choice for all children.
E) IPV is given in four doses at 2 months, 4 months, 6-18
months and 4-6 years of age.
38. The following features made smallpox an eradicable disease
EXCEPT: A) Considerable savings to developed non-endemic
countries
B) No cultural or social barriers to case tracing and
control
C) No carrier state
D) Subclinical infections not a source of infection E) Easily
diagnosed
F) No animal reservoir
G) Infection confers long-term immunity
H) Many stable serotypes
I) Effective vaccine available
J) A severe disease with morbidity and mortality
40. All of the following would be consistent with the
classification of a virus as a new human rhinovirus EXCEPT
A) These viruses are transmitted mainly by contact.
B) These viruses exhibit a short incubation period.
C) Contrary to popular belief, oral secretions resulting from
sneezing or coughing do not have very high titers of virus;
therefore, these are not a likely source of infectious virus. Nasal
secretions have much higher titers of virus.
D) This group of viruses exhibit several unique properties:
they are extremely stable over a wide temperature range ( 70oC to
37oC), their optimum temperature for growth is higher than most
viruses and, like other enteroviruses, they are very stable at low
pH, a characteristic that gives them a replicative advantage.
E) These viruses remained localized and replicate at the site
of entry, the epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract.
Viremia does not occur. No virus spreads to extra respiratory
sites.
41. The WHO has identified polio as the next candidate disease
for total world-wide eradication based on the fact that it shares
the following properties with smallpox EXCEPT:
A) Effective vaccine is available
B) No carrier state
C) Infection confers long-term immunity
D) No animal reservoir
E) Easily diagnosed by virtue of a distinctive rash
F) No cultural or social barrier to case tracing and
control
G) A severe disease with morbidity and mortality
H) Limited number of stable serotypes
I) Subclinical infections are not a source of infection
J) Eradication from developed countries demonstrated its
feasibility