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(1) Because a firm that uses debt can be as profitable as a firm that does...

(1) Because a firm that uses debt can be as profitable as a firm that does not, some financial ratios are calculated with NOPAT (Net Operating Profit After Tax) rather than with net income.

(2) Free Cash Flow to the Firm measures the cash available to equity investors, after all debt payments (including interest and principal), have been made.

(3) For Company T during 2017, the change in accounts receivable was positive, the change in inventories was positive, and there was no change in accounts payable. Therefore the change in working capital was a cash inflow. Is this last statement true or false?

(4) The Price-to-earnings ratio (PE ratio) is useful as an indicator of liquidity because it relates the earnings of a company to its stock price.

(5) In consolidated accounts, when the parent company pays more for the shares of a subsidiary than book value, the difference is positive goodwill

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Answer #1
(1) Because a firm that uses debt can be as profitable as a firm that does not, some financial ratios are calculated with NOPAT (Net Operating Profit After Tax) rather than with net income.
TRUE-- when taking investment decisions, it gives the potential investor, a clear picture about the company's efficiency in core operational areas, as NOPAT does not include debt-servicing or interest charges.
(2) Free Cash Flow to the Firm measures the cash available to equity investors, after all debt payments (including interest and principal), have been made.
FALSE--
FCFF=Cash from Operations-CAPEX
ie.FCFF=(EBIT*(1-Tax Rate)+/-Non-cash charges+/-Changes to Working Capital)- Capital expenditure
whereas ,
FCFE=After-tax Net Income+/-Changes to Working capital+/-Changes to Debt
So, FCFF measures cash availability to both equity & debt/bond holders.
Unlike FCFE , FCFF does not exclude debt payments (including interest & principal)
(3) For Company T during 2017, the change in accounts receivable was positive, the change in inventories was positive, and there was no change in accounts payable. Therefore the change in working capital was a cash inflow. Is this last statement true or false?
FALSE--
Change in receivables & inventories is POSITIVE--means additions to current assets, meaning cash is either not received(in case of accounts receivables) or cash is spent(purchase of inventories).
So, in both cases, the change in working capital ,is a cash outflow and not a cash inflow.
(4) The Price-to-earnings ratio (PE ratio) is useful as an indicator of liquidity because it relates the earnings of a company to its stock price.
FALSE--
P/E ratio is an indicator of how much the market or a potential investor, will be willing to pay , considering the earnings of the company and also after studying the financial statements of the company.
It does not tell anything about the liquidity which means the capability of the company to meet its less-than-a year obligations .
(5) In consolidated accounts, when the parent company pays more for the shares of a subsidiary than book value, the difference is positive goodwill
TRUE
Goodwill=Fair value of net assets-Book Value of net assets
where net assets=Assets taken over -Liabilities accepted
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