Question

Point out and explain the most likely mode of inheritance

Point out and explain the most likely mode of inheritance

Answer 1

ANSWER 1 :-

1. From the figure provided, there are certain points that needs to be highlighted. First of all, in case of individual II-2, all the offsprings of the individual remains unaffected indicating that there is no disease causing alleles present.
2. The next point is that there is no skipping of generations which indicates that the condition should have some relation to the trait being linked to a dominant allele. We need to remove the recessive condition question. If the X-linked dominant feature remains the question, then one can state that the females should be more affected and at the same time an affected male individual cannot transfer the condition to the sons but the daughters. In this case, such condition is avoided.
3. The third point which should be inncluded is that the males and the females are affected in equal numbers as can be seen from the generations II, III and IV.
4. This indicates that the first pedigree should be of Autosomal Dominant condition.

ANSWER 2 :-

1. From the second chart, lets focus on the individual III-12 which does not have any affected individuals which indicates that there shouldnt be any dominant allele or recessive combination in terms of partner alleles.
2. It can be seen from the pedigree that the females are more affected than the males and at the same time, the males do not affect the sons but only the daughters are being affected and the females affect the sons due to passing of chromosome more specifically the X-chromosome to the son. This indicates the condition to be X-linked dominant more specifically because no generation is being skipped. Hence, the condition should be X-linked Dominant condition.