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Can someone explain why a change in inventory valuation method would result in a deferred tax...

Can someone explain why a change in inventory valuation method would result in a deferred tax liability/asset? Let's say you use FIFO for financial reporting, but average-cost for income taxes. How would this reverse itself over time? This seems like a permanent difference to me, but apparently, it's not.

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Answer #1

Deferred tax asset or liability arises because of difference in income due to inventory valuation. It will get reversed over time when inventory gets consumed or difference in inventory is minimal between 2 methods. Also in future when inventory valuation under both financial reporting and tax reporting is same it should get nullified. But if there are 2 different methods of inventory valuation and if inventory valuation difference is large you are right in one way it will be like permanent difference though it is not. I think any company management will notice this and they will surely align both methods of inventory valuation. Financial Reporting Department and Head -Controller are bound to review this balances and take necessary action.

But you should understand inventory keeps getting consumed Hence DTA/DTL balances will keep changing.

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