Any asset, be it short term or long term, is assumed to generate some financial value (if no loss) to the owner. Considering that the asset is a short term or a long term asset, the inflation needs to be adjusted for tax purposes. We all know that inflation adjustments are huge in case of assets owned for 10-15 years and above.
I agree that such a proposition is valid because:
As pointed out earlier also, long term ownership of assets and gains made thereby have to be adjusted with inflation, whereas in case of short term ownership the gains become a part of a person's regular income. The very concept of ownership period of assets shows the intent of owner to either make income gains or to bear the long term economic, market and geo-political risks. So, a person who bears the risk and faces market forces against the assets during the period of ownership gets rewarded indirectly.
Also, in case an asset which is owned for a longer duration and it generates an income (eg rent) , the income is treated fairly for the tax purposes. But the benefit is only on the ownership of the assets.
In terms of tax purpose(s), Why do you think that how long one owned an asset...
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