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i have a question about euler's formula when euler's formula suggets that e^j(angle) is e^j(angle) =...

i have a question about euler's formula
when euler's formula suggets that e^j(angle) is
e^j(angle) = cos (angle) + jsin(angle)

is e^-j2pi equal to 1? or negative 1?
because my professor treated e^-j2pi as 1

would e^-j2pi be equal to

cos(-2pi) + jsin(-2pi)

or

-cos(2pi) - jsin(2pi)

or

-(cos(-2pi) + jsin(-2pi))

first one would be 1 and second and third one would be negative one right? i think its second one i dont know why professor assumed e^-j2pi as 1

using euler's formula which one is correct?

help thank you

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